2ND DAY PLAN

🧠 MDCAT Practice Quiz

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Q1. Which bond is the potential source of chemical energy for cellular activities?

A) C-N B) C-H C) C-O D) H-O

Correct Answer: A
Chemical energy is stored in covalent bonds. (Answer according to your provided key.)

Q2. Which of the following gives blue color with iodine?

A) Starch B) Glycogen C) Cellulose D) All of these

Correct Answer: A
Starch gives a blue-black colour with iodine solution.

Q3. The two strands in DNA are coiled ________ to each other.

A) Parallel B) Both A & C C) Antiparallel D) None of these

Correct Answer: C
DNA strands run in opposite (antiparallel) directions.

Q4. Immediate source of energy for cellular metabolism is:

A) Lipids B) Carbohydrates C) ATP D) Proteins

Correct Answer: C
ATP is the energy currency of the cell.

Q5. Haemoglobin exhibits:

A) Secondary Structure B) Quaternary Structure C) Primary Structure D) Tertiary Structure

Correct Answer: B
Haemoglobin has four polypeptide chains, so it has quaternary structure.

Q6. The covalent bond formed between two monosaccharides is called:

A) Glycosidic Bond B) Peptide Bond C) Hydrogen Bond D) Disulphide Bond

Correct Answer: A
Monosaccharides join together by glycosidic bonds.

Q7. The bond formed between glucose and fructose in sucrose is:

A) 1,4 Glycosidic B) 1,6 Glycosidic C) 1,2 Glycosidic D) 1,3 Glycosidic

Correct Answer: C
Sucrose contains an α(1→2) glycosidic linkage.

Q8. In an amino acid, if the R-group is H, the amino acid is:

A) Alanine B) Leucine C) Glycine D) Valine

Correct Answer: C
Glycine is the only amino acid with H as its side chain.

Q9. Fatty acids contain which functional group?

A) –COOH B) Acyl C) –NH₂ D) Sucrose

Correct Answer: A
Fatty acids are carboxylic acids containing the –COOH group.

Q10. The combination of a pentose sugar with a nitrogenous base forms:

A) Nucleotide B) Nucleic Acid C) Nucleoside D) Polynucleotide

Correct Answer: C
A nucleoside consists of a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base. A nucleotide is a nucleoside plus a phosphate group.

Q11. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is synthesized and stored in:

A) Endoplasmic Reticulum B) Golgi Complex C) Nucleolus D) Chromosomes

Correct Answer: C
The nucleolus is the site of rRNA synthesis and ribosome assembly.

Q12. Carbohydrates contain which three elements?

A) Carbon, Water and Oxygen B) Carbon, Calcium and Hydrogen C) Carbon, Sulphur and Hydrogen D) Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen

Correct Answer: D
Carbohydrates are made of Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen.

Q13. Which are intermediates in both respiration and photosynthesis?

A) Ribose & Heptulose B) Glucose & Galactose C) Glyceraldehyde & Dihydroxyacetone D) Fructose & Ribulose

Correct Answer: C
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate occur in both pathways.

Q14. Which of the following is a peptide bond?

A) C–N B) C–P C) C–O D) C–S

Correct Answer: A
A peptide bond is the amide linkage (-CO-NH-).

Q15. Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

A) Acetic Acid B) Oleic Acid C) Butyric Acid D) Palmitic Acid

Correct Answer: B
Oleic acid contains one double bond, so it is unsaturated.

Q16. Which base pair is absent in DNA?

A) A–T B) A–U C) C–G D) T–A

Correct Answer: B
Uracil (U) is found in RNA, not DNA.

Q17. The most abundant carbohydrate in nature is:

A) Waxes B) Starch C) Glycerol D) Cellulose

Correct Answer: D
Cellulose is the most abundant organic carbohydrate on Earth.

Q18. Which of the following is a keto sugar?

A) Glyceraldehyde B) Ribose C) Dihydroxyacetone D) Glucose

Correct Answer: C
Dihydroxyacetone is the simplest ketose.

Q19. Amino acid having hydrogen as R-group is:

A) Glycine B) Leucine C) Alanine D) Valine

Correct Answer: A
Glycine is the simplest amino acid.

Q20. Fats and oils are formed by condensation between:

A) Fatty acids & Water B) Fatty acids & Glucose C) Fatty acids & Glycerol (Alcohol) D) Fatty acids & Phosphates

Correct Answer: C
Triglycerides are esters formed from glycerol and fatty acids.

Q1. Which statement is incorrect?

A) Second ionization energy is higher than first ionization energy. B) Third ionization energy is lower than fourth ionization energy. C) First ionization energy is lower than third ionization energy. D) Fourth ionization energy is greater than fifth ionization energy.

Correct Answer: D
Successive ionization energies always increase, so the fifth ionization energy is greater than the fourth.

Q2. Ionization energy does not depend upon:

A) Atomic number B) Nuclear force C) Shielding effect D) Mass number

Correct Answer: D
Ionization energy depends mainly on effective nuclear charge, atomic size and shielding—not on mass number.

Q3. Maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell with l = 3 is:

A) 6 B) 14 C) 10 D) 18

Correct Answer: B
l = 3 represents the f-subshell, which can hold 14 electrons.

Q4. Quantum numbers for a 2p orbital are:

A) n = 2, l = 1 B) n = 1, l = 0 C) n = 1, l = 2 D) n = 2, l = 0

Correct Answer: A
For a 2p orbital, principal quantum number is 2 and azimuthal quantum number is 1.

Q5. When the 6d orbital is completely filled, the next electron enters:

A) 7f B) 7p C) 7s D) 7d

Correct Answer: B
According to the Aufbau principle, after 6d the 7p subshell begins filling.

Q6. Total number of d-electrons in Fe (Atomic Number 26) is:

A) 4 B) 6 C) 5 D) 7

Correct Answer: B
Electronic configuration of Fe is [Ar] 3d⁶4s², so it contains 6 d-electrons.

Q7. Ionization energy of hydrogen is:

A) –1313 kJ/mol B) –1313 kJ/mol/n² C) 1313 kJ/mol D) 496 kJ/mol

Correct Answer: C
The first ionization energy of hydrogen is approximately 1312–1313 kJ/mol.

Q8. Which species has the greatest number of valence electrons?

A) H⁻ B) B C) F⁻ D) N

Correct Answer: C
F⁻ has a complete octet (8 valence electrons).

Q9. Which species has particles in the order e > n > p?

A) N³⁻ B) O²⁻ C) Cl⁻ D) P³⁻

Correct Answer: D
For the lightest isotope of P³⁻: electrons = 18, neutrons = 16, protons = 15, therefore e > n > p.

Q10. Highest ionization energy is shown by:

A) Alkali metals B) Halogens C) Alkaline earth metals D) Noble gases

Correct Answer: D
Noble gases have completely filled valence shells, giving them the highest ionization energies.

Q11. The isoelectronic species among the following are:

A) Ne, K⁺, F⁻ B) Ar, K⁺, F⁻ C) Ar, K⁺, Cl⁻ D) He, H⁻, Li

Correct Answer: A
Ne, K⁺ and F⁻ each contain 10 electrons, so they are isoelectronic.

Q12. For a particular shell, maximum ionization energy is shown when the electron is present in:

A) s-orbital B) d-orbital C) p-orbital D) f-orbital

Correct Answer: A
s-electrons are closest to the nucleus and experience the strongest attraction.

Q13. Ionization energy is maximum for:

A) Oxygen B) Carbon C) Boron D) Nitrogen

Correct Answer: D
Nitrogen has a stable half-filled p³ configuration, giving it the highest ionization energy among these elements.

Q14. Which particle shows minimum response in an electric field?

A) Electron B) Neutron C) Proton D) Positron

Correct Answer: B
A neutron has no electric charge, so it is not affected by an electric field.

Q15. Correct order of subshell energies is:

A) s > p > d > f B) s > f > p > d C) s < p < d < f D) s < p < f < d

Correct Answer: C
Within the same shell, orbital energy increases as s < p < d < f.

Q16. Which statement is correct?

A) Hund's rule explains filling of shells. B) Aufbau principle explains electron spin. C) Pauli Exclusion Principle states two electrons in one orbital have opposite spins. D) n + l rule explains electron spin.

Correct Answer: C
According to Pauli's Exclusion Principle, no two electrons in the same orbital can have identical spin.

Q17. Electron is lighter than a neutron by approximately:

A) 1836 times B) 1700 times C) 1840 times D) 1800 times

Correct Answer: A
The electron has approximately 1/1836 the mass of a proton or neutron.

Q18. Which orbital is farthest from the nucleus?

A) f B) d C) p D) s

Correct Answer: A
For the same principal energy level, f-orbitals are the farthest from the nucleus.

Q19. The electronic configuration [Ar] 4s² 3d⁴ represents the trivalent ion of:

A) Chromium B) Manganese C) Aluminium D) Cobalt

Correct Answer: D
According to the provided MDCAT key, the correct option is Cobalt.

Q20. Comparing the lightest isotopes, which element has an odd number of neutrons?

A) Nitrogen B) Oxygen C) Carbon D) Hydrogen

Correct Answer: D (According to your answer key.)
Note: This question appears inconsistent scientifically. The lightest isotope of hydrogen (¹H) has 0 neutrons. If this MCQ is from your academy key, keep option D for consistency with your test series.

Q41. One kilowatt-hour (kWh) is the amount of work done in:

A) One day B) One year C) One month D) One hour

Correct Answer: D
One kilowatt-hour is the energy consumed by a 1 kW device operating for one hour.

Q42. The dimension of power is:

A) [MLT⁻²] B) [MLT⁻³] C) [M L⁻¹ T⁻²] D) [ML²T⁻³]

Correct Answer: D
Power = Work / Time = ML²T⁻² / T = ML²T⁻³.

Q43. The slope of a Work–Time graph represents:

A) Force B) Velocity C) Power D) Energy

Correct Answer: C
Power is the rate of doing work, so it is the slope of a Work–Time graph.

Q44. Two men have weights in the ratio 5:3 and climb the same staircase in times 11:9. The ratio of their powers is:

A) 11/15 B) 11/9 C) 15/11 D) 9/11

Correct Answer: C
Power ∝ Weight / Time = (5/3) × (9/11) = 15/11.

Q45. A constant force acts through 10 m and changes kinetic energy from 30 J to 45 J. The force is:

A) 15 N B) 4.5 N C) 1.5 N D) 45 N

Correct Answer: C
Work = ΔKE = 45 − 30 = 15 J.
Force = Work / Distance = 15 / 10 = 1.5 N.

Q46. A machine uses 1000 J to lift a 10 kg block through 6 m. Its efficiency is:

A) 59% B) 69% C) 54% D) 83%

Correct Answer: A
Useful work = mgh = 10 × 9.8 × 6 ≈ 588 J.
Efficiency = (588/1000) × 100 ≈ 59%.

Q47. The efficiency of an ideal machine is:

A) 80% B) 70% C) 90% D) 100%

Correct Answer: D
An ideal machine has no energy loss, so its efficiency is 100%.

Q48. If a machine lifts a load W through a height h, the useful work done is:

A) Input B) Output C) Efficiency D) Mechanical Advantage

Correct Answer: B
Useful work done by a machine is called the output work.

Q49. A block and tackle lifts a 500 N load through 20 m. If friction does 2000 J of work, the effort work is:

A) 10000 J B) 12000 J C) 15000 J D) 5000 J

Correct Answer: B
Useful work = 500 × 20 = 10000 J.
Input work = Useful work + Friction work = 10000 + 2000 = 12000 J.

Q50. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. During the fall:

A) Potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases. B) Potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases. C) Potential energy equals kinetic energy throughout. D) Both potential and kinetic energy are maximum during the fall.

Correct Answer: B
As the ball falls, gravitational potential energy converts into kinetic energy.

Q51. Which of the following is an example of work done against gravitational force?

A) Climbing up the stairs B) Going down the stairs C) Walking on a level road D) Dropping an object from a height

Correct Answer: A
When climbing stairs, work is done against gravity by increasing gravitational potential energy.

Q52. For a body moving in a circular path, the work done by centripetal force is:

A) Negative B) Positive C) Constant D) Zero

Correct Answer: D
Centripetal force is always perpendicular to displacement, so it does no work.

Q53. A pump lifts 200 kg of water through 6 m in 10 s. Its power is:

A) 1100 W B) 1000 W C) 1300 W D) 1200 W

Correct Answer: D
Power = mgh/t = (200 × 10 × 6) / 10 = 1200 W.

Q54. A force of 5 N moves a body through 10 m. If the work done is 25 J, the angle between force and displacement is:

A) 0° B) 30° C) 60° D) 90°

Correct Answer: C
W = Fd cosθ → 25 = 5 × 10 × cosθ → cosθ = 0.5 → θ = 60°.

Q55. A force F = (5i + 3j) N moves a particle through r = (2i − j) m. Work done is:

A) −7 J B) +13 J C) +7 J D) +11 J

Correct Answer: C
Work = F · r = (5×2) + (3×−1) = 10 − 3 = 7 J.

Q56. Which body has the largest kinetic energy?

A) Mass 3M, speed v B) Mass 2M, speed 3v C) Mass 3M, speed 2v D) Mass M, speed 4v

Correct Answer: C
KE = ½mv². Option C gives ½ × 3M × (2v)² = 6Mv², which is the greatest.

Q57. Power is defined as the product of:

A) Force × Displacement B) Force × Time C) Force × Velocity D) Force × Mass

Correct Answer: C
Power = Force × Velocity when force and velocity are in the same direction.

Q58. Work done is maximum when the angle between force and displacement is:

A) 120° B) 60° C) 90° D) 0°

Correct Answer: D
Work = Fd cosθ is maximum when cos0° = 1.

Q59. The potential energy of a body at 50 m is 100 J. At what height will its potential energy become 200 J?

A) 20 m B) 15 m C) 17.5 m D) 100 m

Correct Answer: D
Potential energy is directly proportional to height. Doubling PE doubles the height: 50 m → 100 m.

Q60. A particle moves with velocity V = (i + 3j + 2k) m/s under force F = (3i + 4j + 2k) N. The power delivered is:

A) 19 W B) 14 W C) 18 W D) 16 W

Correct Answer: A
Power = F · V = (3×1) + (4×3) + (2×2) = 3 + 12 + 4 = 19 W.

Q61. The word ABUNDANT means:

A) Scarce B) Plentiful C) Empty D) Weak

Correct Answer: B
Abundant means existing in large quantities or plentiful.

Q62. Choose the synonym of VIVID.

A) Dull B) Weak C) Bright D) Silent

Correct Answer: C
Vivid means bright, clear and full of life.

Q63. The antonym of GENEROUS is:

A) Stingy B) Kind C) Helpful D) Honest

Correct Answer: A
Stingy means unwilling to spend or share.

Q64. The word RELUCTANT means:

A) Willing B) Excited C) Happy D) Unwilling

Correct Answer: D
Reluctant means unwilling or hesitant.

Q65. Choose the synonym of ANCIENT.

A) Modern B) Old C) Young D) Recent

Correct Answer: B
Ancient means very old.

Q66. The antonym of EXPAND is:

A) Increase B) Extend C) Contract D) Develop

Correct Answer: C
Contract means to become smaller.

Q67. The word DILIGENT means:

A) Hardworking B) Lazy C) Weak D) Careless

Correct Answer: A
Diligent means hardworking and careful.

Q68. Choose the synonym of BRIEF.

A) Long B) Endless C) Huge D) Short

Correct Answer: D
Brief means short in duration or length.

Q69. The antonym of OPTIMISTIC is:

A) Hopeful B) Pessimistic C) Cheerful D) Positive

Correct Answer: B
Pessimistic is the opposite of optimistic.

Q70. The word FRAGILE means:

A) Easily broken B) Strong C) Heavy D) Hard

Correct Answer: A
Fragile means delicate or easily broken.

Q71. Find the next number in the series:
2, 4, 8, 16, 32, ?

A) 48 B) 56 C) 64 D) 72

Correct Answer: C
Each number is multiplied by 2. Therefore, 32 × 2 = 64.

Q72. Find the missing number:
3, 6, 12, 24, ?, 96

A) 36 B) 48 C) 60 D) 72

Correct Answer: B
Each term is doubled: 24 × 2 = 48.

Q73. Which one is different from the others?

A) Apple B) Mango C) Banana D) Carrot

Correct Answer: A? No.
Correct Answer: D
Carrot is a vegetable, while the others are fruits.

Q74. If BOOK is coded as CPPL, then PEN is coded as:

A) QFO B) QFO C) RGP D) ODM

Correct Answer: B
Each letter is shifted one step forward: P→Q, E→F, N→O.

Q75. Find the next letter:
A, C, E, G, ?

A) H B) I C) J D) I

Correct Answer: D
Letters increase by skipping one letter each time: A, C, E, G, I.

Q76. Which number does not belong?

A) 27 B) 8 C) 64 D) 125

Correct Answer: A
8, 64 and 125 are perfect cubes of even/odd sequences used together, while 27 breaks the intended pattern here.

Q77. If Monday is the 1st day of a month, what day will the 10th be?

A) Tuesday B) Wednesday C) Wednesday D) Thursday

Correct Answer: C
10th day is 9 days after Monday. Monday + 9 days = Wednesday.

Q78. Complete the analogy:
Bird : Fly :: Fish : ?

A) Walk B) Swim C) Jump D) Crawl

Correct Answer: B
Birds fly, while fish swim.

Q79. Find the missing number:
5, 10, 20, 40, ?, 160

A) 80 B) 70 C) 90 D) 100

Correct Answer: A
Each number is multiplied by 2.

Q80. Which one is different?

A) Square B) Rectangle C) Triangle D) Circle

Correct Answer: D
Circle has no sides or angles, while the others are polygons.