1ST DAY PLAN

🌟 MDCAT BIGGEST PAST PAPERS COLLECTION TEST 🌟

Chapter: CELL STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION

Q.1 The cells of plants and animals can be distinguished by:
A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Cell wall D. Vacuole
Answer: C. Cell wall
Explanation: Plant cells have a rigid cell wall made of cellulose. Animal cells lack cell wall but have only cell membrane.
Q.2 Cell organelles separated by:
A. Gel electrophoresis B. X-rays diffraction C. Cell fractionation D. Homogenization
Answer: C. Cell fractionation
Explanation: Cell fractionation uses differential centrifugation to separate organelles based on size and density.
Q.3 Common in both plant and animal cells:
A. Centriole B. Peroxisomes C. Glyoxysomes D. Lysosome
Answer: B. Peroxisomes
Explanation: Peroxisomes are present in both and help in detoxification of H2O2.
Q.4 Not found in animal cell:
A. Microbodies B. Heterochromatin C. Plasmodesmata D. Microfilaments
Answer: C. Plasmodesmata
Explanation: Plasmodesmata are cytoplasmic channels found only between plant cells.
Q.5 Smallest unit of life:
A. Biological molecule B. Cell C. Organelle D. Organ
Answer: B. Cell
Explanation: Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
Q.6 Order by size:
A. Nucleus, protein, ribosome, amino acid B. Nucleus, ribosome, protein, amino acid C. Protein, nucleus, amino acid ribosome D. Amino acid, protein, ribosome, nucleus
Answer: B. Nucleus, ribosome, protein, amino acid
Explanation: Nucleus is largest, then ribosome, then protein molecule, then amino acid.
Q.7 Most plant cells do not have:
A. Cell wall, nucleus & vacuole B. Lysosome, peroxisomes & glyoxysomes C. Centriole, cytoskeleton & peroxisomes D. Flagellum, centriole & lysosome
Answer: B. Lysosome, peroxisomes & glyoxysomes
Explanation: Lysosomes are rare in plants. Glyoxysomes are only in germinating seeds.
Q.8 Phagocytosis is character of:
A. Plant cell B. Animal cell C. Bacterial cell D. All
Answer: A. Plant cell
Explanation: As per your provided answer key.
Q.9 Common in cheek cell and mesophyll:
A. Cell membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm B. Cytoplasm, cell wall and cell membrane C. Cell wall, cell membrane and nucleus D. Nucleus, cytoplasm and cell wall
Answer: D. Nucleus, cytoplasm and cell wall
Explanation: As per your provided answer key.
Q.10 Not found in animal cell:
A. Microbodies B. Heterochromatin C. Plasmodesmata D. Microfilaments
Answer: C. Plasmodesmata
Explanation: Plasmodesmata are plant specific for cell communication.
Q.11 Fungi cell wall: ___ Bacteria: ___
A. Chitin, cellulose B. Peptidoglycan, Murein C. Chitin, murein D. Cellulose, pectin
Answer: C. Chitin, murein
Explanation: Fungi cell wall = Chitin. Bacterial cell wall = Murein/Peptidoglycan.
Q.12 Cell wall molecules in criss cross:
A. Suberin B. Cellulose C. Lignin D. Silica
Answer: B. Cellulose
Explanation: Cellulose microfibrils are arranged in criss-cross for mechanical strength.
Q.13 Fluid mosaic model proteins:
A. Sandwiched B. Layered C. Embedded like mosaic D. On surface
Answer: D. Present only on surface of lipids
Explanation: As per your provided answer key.
Q.14 Least likely to diffuse through lipid bilayer:
A. Water B. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide D. Sodium ions
Answer: C. Carbon dioxide
Explanation: As per your provided answer key. Ions cannot easily pass.
Q.15 Outermost boundary of plant cell:
A. Cell membrane B. Capsule C. Cell wall D. Spore coat
Answer: C. Cell wall
Explanation: Cell wall is outermost, then cell membrane.
Q.16 Water movement high to low potential:
A. Diffusion B. Facilitated diffusion C. Osmosis D. Active transport
Answer: C. Osmosis
Explanation: Osmosis is diffusion of water across semi-permeable membrane.
Q.17 Glucose uptake from blood:
A. Diffusion B. Facilitated diffusion C. Active transport D. Endocytosis
Answer: B. Facilitated diffusion
Explanation: Glucose uses GLUT carrier proteins. No ATP required.
Q.18 Eukaryotic ribosomes:
A. 30S & 50S B. 40S & 60S C. 70S & 80S D. 80S & 100S
Answer: C. 70S & 80S
Explanation: 80S in cytoplasm, 70S in mitochondria and plastids.
Q.19 Ribosomes attached with:
A. Inner RER B. Cytoplasmic RER C. Inner SER D. Cytoplasmic SER
Answer: B. Cytoplasmic surface of RER
Explanation: Ribosomes attach to outer cytoplasmic side of Rough ER.
Q.20 Eukaryotic ribosomes RNA:Protein:
A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. 2:1 D. 3:1
Answer: A. 1:1
Explanation: Eukaryotic ribosomes have approximately equal RNA and protein.
Q.21 ER flattened sacs:
A. Cristae B. Elementary particles C. Cisternae D. Suicidal bags
Answer: C. Cisternae
Explanation: Flattened membrane sacs of ER are called cisternae.
Q.22 Cisternae break to form Golgi vesicles from:
A. SER B. Maturing face of Golgi C. Forming face of Golgi D. RER
Answer: B. Maturing face of Golgi complex
Explanation: Trans face or maturing face releases secretory vesicles.
Q.23 Golgi cisternae formed from:
A. SER B. Lysosome C. RER D. Peroxisomes
Answer: A. SER
Explanation: Vesicles budding from SER fuse to form new Golgi cisternae.
Q.24 Glyoxylate cycle associated with:
A. Lysosomes B. Peroxisomes C. Glyoxysomes D. Ribosomes
Answer: B. Peroxisomes
Explanation: As per your provided answer key.
Q.25 Major contributor to turgor:
A. Nucleus B. Cytoskeleton C. Vacuole D. Chloroplast
Answer: C. Vacuole
Explanation: Large central vacuole provides turgor pressure to plant cells.

Chapter: CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

Q.101 Incorrect about diamond:
A) 2D structure B) FCC C) Covalent solid D) Non-conductor
Answer: A) It has two dimensional structure
Explanation: Diamond has 3D tetrahedral covalent network, not 2D.
Q.102 Incorrect about NaCl:
A) FCC B) 4 formula units C) Distance 2.75A D) Non-conductor
Answer: C) Distance 2.75A
Explanation: Actual Na-Cl distance in NaCl crystal is 2.82 Angstrom.
Q.103 Elements arranged by:
A) Mass number B) Reactivity C) Proton number D) Density
Answer: C) Proton number
Explanation: Modern periodic law: elements arranged by increasing atomic number.
Q.104 Z=19, A=40:
A) Group IIA B) 3rd period C) Same p+ and e- D) Same p+ and n
Answer: C) Same number of protons and electrons
Explanation: Neutral atom has 19 protons and 19 electrons.
Q.105 Neutron has:
A) 1g mass B) Mass ≈ proton C) -ve charge D) In all atoms
Answer: B) Mass approximately equal to proton
Explanation: Neutron mass = 1.008 amu. It has no charge.
Q.106 Z: 3,10,9,12. Not same period:
A) 3 B) 10 C) 9 D) 12
Answer: D) 12
Explanation: Mg Z=12 is period 3. Others Li,Ne,F are period 2.
Q.107 Incorrect:
A) Metals 1-3 valence B) Non-metals 4-7 C) Noble 2 or 8 D) All IIIA metals
Answer: D) All IIIA group are metals
Explanation: Boron is non-metal in group IIIA.
Q.108 Correct EXCEPT:
A) Group=valence B) Period=shells C) Inner e-=valence D) Block=orbital
Answer: C) Inner shell electrons are valence
Explanation: Valence electrons are outermost shell electrons only.
Q.109 Max unpaired:
A) Fe+3 B) Ni+2 C) Zn D) Cu+
Answer: A) Fe+3
Explanation: Fe3+ = [Ar]3d5. It has 5 unpaired electrons.
Q.110 Lowest n:
A) 0 B) 2 C) 1 D) 3
Answer: C) 1
Explanation: n=1 is K shell, lowest principal quantum number.
Q.111 Energy order 4s,4p,3d:
A) 3d<4p 4p="" 4s="" b="" c="" d="" div="" p="" s="">
Answer: B) 4s < 3d < 4p
Explanation: According to n+l rule: 4s=4, 3d=5, 4p=5 but 4s fills first.
Q.112 With increase n, s-size:
A) Increase B) Decrease C) Same D) May vary
Answer: A) Increase
Explanation: Higher n means electron is farther, so orbital size increases.
Q.113 Quantum numbers NOT for:
A) Group B) Block C) Period D) 1st IE
Answer: D) 1st ionization energy
Explanation: IE depends on nuclear charge and shielding, not directly quantum numbers.
Q.114 Energy by:
A) n B) n+l,m C) n+l D) n,l,m,s
Answer: C) n + l
Explanation: n+l rule determines energy order in multi-electron atoms.
Q.115 Opposite spin from:
A) Hund B) Pauli C) Aufbau D) Heisenberg
Answer: B) Pauli’s Exclusion Principle
Explanation: No two electrons can have all 4 quantum numbers same.
Q.116 IE correct EXCEPT:
A) Successive increase B) Gaseous C) Stable=high D) May not endothermic
Answer: D) May or may not be endothermic
Explanation: Ionization always requires energy, so always endothermic.
Q.117 Greater 1st IE:
A) Si B) Cl C) P D) Al
Answer: B) Cl
Explanation: IE increases across period. Cl is on right side.
Q.118 Orbital never by:
A) 1 e- B) 3 e- C) 2 e- D) 0 e-
Answer: B) 3 electrons
Explanation: Maximum 2 electrons per orbital with opposite spin.
Q.119 Strong bases:
A) Inert B) Middle C) Right D) Left
Answer: D) Left
Explanation: Group 1 and 2 metals on left form strong bases.
Q.120 Quantum numbers order:
A) Size,Shape,Orientation B) Orientation,Size,Shape C) Shape,Size,Orientation D) Shape,Orientation,Size
Answer: A) Size, Shape, Orientation
Explanation: n=size, l=shape, m=orientation.
Q.121 Incorrect about EA:
A) Stable=high EA B) 3rd>2nd C) Associated D) Gaseous
Answer: A) Stable config = high EA
Explanation: Noble gases have stable config so very low EA.
Q.122 Greater EA pair:
A) F,Cl B) S,O C) N,P D) B,Al
Answer: B) S, O
Explanation: S has greater EA than O due to less electron-electron repulsion.
Q.123 Lower IE pair:
A) N,O B) Ne,F C) Mg,Al D) S,P
Answer: B) Ne, F
Explanation: Ne has higher IE than F.
Q.124 Rutherford failed:
A) No nucleus B) No p+-n C) No stability D) No space
Answer: C) No stability of atom
Explanation: Could not explain why electrons don't fall into nucleus.
Q.125 Bohr contradicted by:
A) Planck B) Heisenberg C) Photoelectric D) Dual nature
Answer: B) Heisenberg’s uncertainty
Explanation: Cannot define exact path and position of electron.

Chapter: MOTION AND FORCE

Q.1 Resistance of dry human body:
A)10 Ω B)10⁴ Ω C)10 MΩ D)10 μΩ
Answer: B) 10⁴ Ω
Explanation: Dry human body resistance is about 10kΩ = 10⁴Ω.
Q.2 Ag wire 2.1Ω at 27.5°C, 2.7Ω at 100°C. α=?
A)0.0059 B)0.0039 C)0.0129 D)0.0159
Answer: B) 0.0039
Explanation: Using R2=R1[1+α(T2-T1)], we get α = 0.0039 /°C for silver.
Q.3 Rate of flow of charge:
A) Flux B) Potential C) Current D) Field
Answer: C) Electric current
Explanation: Electric current I = Q/t is rate of flow of charge.
Q.4 Non-ohmic resistance:
A) Lamp filament B) Copper wire C) Carbon resistor D) Diode
Answer: D) Diode
Explanation: Diode does not obey Ohm's law, so non-ohmic.
Q.5 Current density is:
A) Scalar B) Vector C) Dimensionless D) None
Answer: B) Vector quantity
Explanation: Current density J has both magnitude and direction.
Q.6 Resistivity drops to zero:
A) Conductivity B) Partial C) Superconductivity D) Non-conductivity
Answer: C) Superconductivity
Explanation: Below critical temperature, resistance becomes zero.
Q.7 Opposition by electrolyte:
A) External R B) Internal R C) Non-resistance D) None
Answer: B) Internal resistance
Explanation: Opposition offered by electrolyte inside the cell.
Q.8 1 Coulomb per second =
A) Joule B) Volt C) Ampere D) Watt
Answer: C) Ampere
Explanation: 1 Ampere = 1 Coulomb per second.
Q.9 Current in metal due to:
A) Positive B) Negative C) Proton D) None
Answer: B) Negative charge
Explanation: In metals, current is due to flow of free electrons.
Q.10 Conventional current:
A) High to Low potential B) Low to High C) Low to Low D) None
Answer: A) Higher to lower potential
Explanation: Conventional current flows opposite to electron flow.
Q.11 Thermocouple converts:
A) Mechanical B) Electric C) Magnetic D) None
Answer: B) Heat to Electric energy
Explanation: Thermocouple works on Seebeck effect.
Q.12 Heating effect used in:
A) Iron B) Tube light C) Fan D) Motor
Answer: A) Iron
Explanation: Electric iron uses heating effect of current.
Q.13 Current in electrolyte due to:
A) Free electrons B) +ve and -ve ions C) Electrons and holes D) Protons
Answer: B) Positive and negative ions
Explanation: In electrolyte, ions drift to conduct current.
Q.14 Current measured by:
A) Heating B) Magnetic C) Chemical D) None
Answer: B) Magnetic effect
Explanation: Ammeter and galvanometer use magnetic effect.
Q.15 Current in liquids/gases due to:
A) -ve B) +ve C) Neutral D) Both +ve and -ve
Answer: D) Both negative and positive charges
Explanation: Both cations and anions move in liquids/gases.
Q.16 Electricity through liquid:
A) Electro late B) Electrolysis C) Electro-conductor D) None
Answer: B) Electrolysis
Explanation: Decomposition of electrolyte by electric current.
Q.17 Magnetic effect used in:
A) Iron B) Thermocouple C) Current measurement D) None
Answer: C) Measurement of current
Explanation: Ammeter works on magnetic effect.
Q.18 VI graph of Ohm's law:
A) Hyperbola B) Ellipse C) Parabola D) Straight line
Answer: D) Straight line
Explanation: V=IR, so V vs I graph is straight line.
Q.19 Ohm's law formula:
A) I=VR B) I=V/R C) I=R/V D) R=IV
Answer: B) I = V/R
Explanation: Current = Voltage divided by Resistance.
Q.20 Ohm's law valid for:
A) Conductors B) Transistors C) Diodes D) Electric areas
Answer: A) Conductors
Explanation: Ohm's law is valid only for ohmic conductors.
Q.21 Color code for Grey:
A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 5
Answer: C) 9
Explanation: Grey color represents digit 9 in resistor code.
Q.22 Yellow, Black, Red resistor:
A) 4kΩ B) 400Ω C) 40Ω D) 40kΩ
Answer: D) 40 kΩ
Explanation: Yellow=4, Black=0, Red=10^3. So 40 x 1000 = 40kΩ
Q.23 Gold tolerance:
A) ±2% B) ±4% C) ±5% D) ±6%
Answer: C) ±5%
Explanation: Gold band indicates ±5% tolerance.
Q.24 Silver tolerance:
A) ±5% B) ±10% C) ±15% D) ±20%
Answer: B) ±10%
Explanation: Silver band indicates ±10% tolerance.
Q.25 SI unit of emf same as:
A) Work B) Energy C) Power D) Potential Difference
Answer: D) Potential Difference
Explanation: Both emf and potential difference have unit Volt.

Chapter: ERROR SPOTTING

Q.1 The team have submitted their report yesterday.
A) The team B) have C) submitted D) No error
Answer: B) have
Explanation: 'Team' is collective noun singular. Use 'has' instead of 'have'.
Q.2 Neither of the students are present today.
A) Neither B) students C) are D) No error
Answer: C) are
Explanation: 'Neither' is singular. Use 'is' instead of 'are'.
Q.3 I have been living here since 5 years.
A) have been B) living C) since D) No error
Answer: C) since
Explanation: Use 'for' with period of time. 'Since' is used with point of time.
Q.4 She don't like spicy food at all.
A) She B) don't C) spicy D) No error
Answer: B) don't
Explanation: For 3rd person singular use 'doesn't' instead of 'don't'.
Q.5 Each of the boys have a bicycle.
A) Each B) boys C) have D) No error
Answer: C) have
Explanation: 'Each' is singular. Use 'has' instead of 'have'.
Q.6 The data shows interesting results.
A) The data B) shows C) interesting D) No error
Answer: B) shows
Explanation: 'Data' is plural of datum. Use 'show' instead of 'shows'.
Q.7 He is elder than me by two years.
A) He B) elder C) than me D) No error
Answer: B) elder
Explanation: For age comparison use 'older'. 'Elder' is used for family relations.
Q.8 One of my friend lives in Lahore.
A) One B) my friend C) lives D) No error
Answer: B) my friend
Explanation: 'One of' takes plural noun. Use 'my friends'.
Q.9 The committee are divided on this issue.
A) committee B) are C) divided D) No error
Answer: B) are
Explanation: If committee acts as one unit use 'is'. 'Are' if members act separately.
Q.10 Between you and I, this is confidential.
A) Between B) you C) I D) No error
Answer: C) I
Explanation: After preposition 'between' use objective case 'me'.
Q.11 She is more smarter than her sister.
A) She B) more smarter C) than D) No error
Answer: B) more smarter
Explanation: Don't use 'more' with -er form. Use 'smarter' only.
Q.12 I am going to home now.
A) am going B) to home C) now D) No error
Answer: B) to home
Explanation: 'Home' is adverb here. No 'to' needed. Use 'going home'.
Q.13 The sceneries of Kashmir are beautiful.
A) sceneries B) of Kashmir C) are D) No error
Answer: A) sceneries
Explanation: 'Scenery' is uncountable noun. No plural form.
Q.14 He asked me that where I was going.
A) asked B) that C) where D) No error
Answer: B) that
Explanation: In indirect questions don't use 'that' before question word.
Q.15 He made a noise in the class yesterday.
A) made B) a noise C) in the class D) No error
Answer: D) No error
Explanation: Sentence is grammatically correct.

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